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December 29, 2018

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New Cisco 300-101 Exam Dumps Collection (Question 1 - Question 10)

Q1. Under which circumstance will a branch ISR router contain interface vlan configurations?

A. performing inter-VLAN routing

B. performing 802.1Q trunking

C. performing ISL trunking

D. Ethernet Switch Module installed

E. ADSL WIC installed

F. running Call Manager Express

Answer: D

Explanation:

In smaller offices, a single ISR may be used for a both remote connectivity and inter-VLAN routing. In that case, know that an Ethernet Switch Module would be required for the ISR router



Q2. Refer to exhibit.

What is indicated by the show ip cef command for an address?

A. CEF is unable to get routing information for this route.

B. CEF cannot switch packet for this route and passes it to the next best switching method.

C. A valid entry and is pointed to hardware based forwarding.

D. CEF cannot switch packet for this route and drops it.

Answer: B

Explanation: Glean adjacency u2013 in short when the router is directly connected to hosts the FIB table on the router will maintain a prefix for the subnet rather than for the individual host prefix. This subnet prefix points to a GLEAN adjacency.

Punt adjacency u2013 When packets to a destination prefix canu2019t be CEF Switched, or the feature is not supported in the CEF Switching path, the router will then use the next slower switching mechanism configured on the router.



Q3. A router receives a routing advertisement for the same prefix and subnet from four different routing protocols. Which advertisement is installed in the routing table?

A. RIP

B. OSPF

C. iBGP

D. EIGRP

Answer: D



Q4. A route map uses an ACL, if the required matching is based on which criteria?

A. addressing information

B. route types

C. AS paths

D. metrics

Answer: A



Q5. Which two OSPF network types can operate without a DR/BDR relationship? (Choose Two)

A. Point-to-multipoint

B. Point-to-point

C. nonbroadcast

D. nonbroadcast multi-access

E. broadcast

Answer: A,B



Q6. After reviewing the EVN configuration, a network administrator notices that a predefined EVN, which is known as u201cvnet globalu201d was configured. What is the purpose of this EVN?

A. It defines the routing scope for each particular EVN edge interface.

B. It aggregates and carries all dot1q tagged traffic.

C. It refers to the global routing context and corresponds to the default RIB.

D. It safeguards the virtual network that is preconfigured to avoid mismatched routing instances

Answer: C



Q7. Which option to the command service timestamps debug enables the logging server to capture the greatest amount of information from the router?

A. uptime

B. show-timezone

C. year

D. msec

Answer: D



Q8. Which two debug commands can you use to view issues with CHAP and PAP authentication? (Choose Two)

A. debug tacacs

B. debug ppp authentication

C. debug radius

D. debug aaa authentication

E. debug ppp negotiation

Answer: B,E

Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wan/point-to-point-protocol-ppp/25647-understanding-ppp-chap.html



Q9. Which command must be globally enabled on a Cisco router to support IPv6?

A. ip routing ipv6

B. ipv6 unicast-routing

C. ipv6 routing

D. ip classless

E. ipv6 cef

Answer: B



Q10. Which two functionalities are specific to stateless NAT64? (Choose two.)

A. No requirement exists for the characteristics of Ipv6 address assignment.

B. It does not conserve Ipv4 addresses.

C. It provides 1-to-1 translation.

D. It uses address overloading.

E. State or bindings are created on the translation.

Answer: B,C




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