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July 10, 2018

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New Cisco 200-105 Exam Dumps Collection (Question 14 - Question 23)

Question No: 14

Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent DNS for a cloud computing solution?

A. It reduces the need for a backup data center.

B. It can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources.

C. It enables the ISP to maintain DNS records automatically.

D. It eliminates the need for a GSS.

Answer: B


Question No: 15

Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Choose two.)

A. It identifies the source of a Type 1 LSA.

B. It should be the same on all routers in an OSPF routing instance.

C. By default, the lowest IP address on the router becomes the OSPF Router ID.

D. The router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID.

E. It is created using the MAC Address of the loopback interface.

Answer: A,D

Explanation:

From the output of the u201cshow ip ospf databaseu201d:


Question No: 16

Which statement about switch access ports is true?

A. They drop packets with 802.1Q tags.

B. A VLAN must be assigned to an access port before it is created.

C. They can receive traffic from more than one VLAN with no voice support

D. By default, they carry traffic for VLAN 10.

Answer: A

Explanation:

"If an access port receives a packet with an 802.1Q tag in the header other than the access VLAN value, that port drops the packet without learning its MAC source address."


Question No: 17

After you configure a GRE tunnel between two networks, the tunnel comes up normally, but workstations on each side of the tunnel cannot communicate. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?

A. The tunnel source address is incorrect.

B. The tunnel destination address is incorrect.

C. The route between the networks is undefined.

D. The IP MTU is incorrect.

E. The distance configuration is missing.

Answer: A


Question No: 18

Which two pieces of information are provided by the show controllers serial 0 command? (Choose two.)

A. the type of cable that is connected to the interface.

B. The uptime of the interface

C. the status of the physical layer of the interface

D. the full configuration of the interface

E. the interface's duplex settings

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

The show controller command provides hardware-related information useful to troubleshoot and diagnose issues with Cisco router interfaces. The Cisco 12000 Series uses a distributed architecture with a central command-line interface (CLI) at the Gigabit Route Processor (GRP) and a local CLI at each line card.


Question No: 19

Which WAN technology uses labels to make decisions about data forwarding?

A. Metro Ethernet

B. Frame Relay

C. MPLS

D. ISDN

E. VSAT

Answer: C


Question No: 20

Which option describes how a switch in rapid PVST+ mode responds to a topology change?

A. It immediately deletes dynamic MAC addresses that were learned by all ports on the switch.

B. It sets a timer to delete all MAC addresses that were learned dynamically by ports in the same STP instance.

C. It sets a timer to delete dynamic MAC addresses that were learned by all ports on the switch.

D. It immediately deletes all MAC addresses that were learned dynamically by ports in the same STP instance.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Rapid PVST+This spanning-tree mode is the same as PVST+ except that is uses a rapid convergence based on the IEEE 802.1w standard. To provide rapid convergence, the rapid PVST+ immediately deletes dynamically learned MAC address entries on a per-port basis upon receiving a topology change. By contrast, PVST+ uses a short aging time for dynamically learned MAC address entries.

The rapid PVST+ uses the same configuration as PVST+ (except where noted), and the switch needs only minimal extra configuration. The benefit of rapid PVST+ is that you can migrate a large PVST+ install base to rapid PVST+ without having to learn the complexities of the MSTP configuration and without having to reprovision your network. In rapid-PVST+ mode, each VLAN runs its own spanning-tree instance up to the maximum supported.


Question No: 21

Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)

A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.

B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.

C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.

D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.

E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.

F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.

Answer: B,D,E

Explanation:

By default, all ports on a new switch belong to VLAN 1 (default & native VLAN). There are also some well-known VLANs (for example: VLAN 1002 for fddi-default; VLAN 1003 for token-ringu2026) configured by default -> A is not correct.

To communicate between two different VLANs we need to use a Layer 3 device like router or Layer 3 switch -> B is correct.

VLANs donu2019t affect the number of collision domains, they are the same -> C is not correct. Typically, VLANs increase the number of broadcast domains.We must use a different network (or sub-network) for each VLAN. For example we can use 192.168.1.0/24 for VLAN 1, 192.168.2.0/24 for VLAN 2 -> D is correct.

A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN so that it can send frame to ports on the same VLAN only. For example, if a PC in VLAN 2 sends a frame then the switch look-ups its bridging table and only sends frame out of its ports which belong to VLAN 2 (it also sends this frame on trunk ports) -> E is correct.

We can use multiple switches to expand VLAN -> F is not correct.


Question No: 22

If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level, which log messages will the router send?

A. error conditions only

B. warning and error conditions only

C. normal but significant conditions only

D. all levels except debugging

E. informational messages only

Answer: D


Question No: 23

Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?

A. a backup route, stored in the routing table

B. a primary route, stored in the routing table

C. a backup route, stored in the topology table

D. a primary route, stored in the topology table

Answer: C

Explanation:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a0080093f07.shtml

Feasible Successors

A destination entry is moved from the topology table to the routing table when there is a feasible successor. All minimum cost paths to the destination form a set. From this set, the neighbors that have an advertised metric less than the current routing table metric are considered feasible successors.

Feasible successors are viewed by a router as neighbors that are downstream with respect to the destination.

These neighbors and the associated metrics are placed in the forwarding table.

When a neighbor changes the metric it has been advertising or a topology change occurs in the network, the set of feasible successors may have to be re-evaluated. However, this is not categorized as a route recomputation.

Feasible successor is a route whose Advertised Distance (AD) is less than the Feasible Distance (FD) of the current best path. A feasible successor is a backup route, which is not stored in the routing table but, stored in the topology table.



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