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Posted on May 23, 2017

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Posted on May 16, 2017

Q341. Refer to the exhibit. Why is the prefix not present in the routing table of R1? A. There is a duplicate router ID. B. There is a subnet mask mismatch on Ethernet0/0. C. The router LSA has an invalid checksum. D. There is an OSPF network type mismatch that causes the advertising router to be unreachable. Answer: D Explanation: A common problem when using Open Shortest Path

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Posted on May 15, 2017

Q421. DRAG DROP Drag and drop each IPv6 neighbor discovery message type on the left to the corresponding description on the right. Answer: Q422. Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions can you take to enable CE-1 at site A to access the Internet? (Choose two.) A. Create a default route for site A on PE-1 with the next hop set to the PE-2 interface to the Internet. B. Originate a default ro

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Posted on May 14, 2017

Q171. Refer to the exhibit. Router A and router B are physically connected over an Ethernet interface, and IS-IS is configured as shown. Which option explains why the IS-IS neighborship is not getting formed between router A and router B? A. same area ID B. same N selector C. same domain ID D. same system ID Answer: D Explanation: With IS-IS, the LSP identifier is derived from the system

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Posted on May 13, 2017

Q491. Refer to the exhibit. The two standalone chassis are unable to convert into a VSS. What can you do to correct the problem? A. Set a different port channel number on each chassis. B. Set a different virtual domain ID on each chassis. C. Set the redundancy mode to rpr on both chassis. D. Add two ports to the port channel group. Answer: A Q492. Which two options are EEM policies? (Choo

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Posted on May 12, 2017

Q411. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements about this configuration are true? (Choose three.) A. The default route appears in the global routing table. B. The static route appears in the VRF red routing table. C. The subnet is unique to the VRF red routing table. D. The static route is added to the global routing table and leaked from the VRF red. E. The subnet 192.168.1

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Posted on May 8, 2017

Q461. Which two statements about the default SNMP configuration are true? (Choose two.) A. The SNMP agent is enabled. B. The SNMP trap receiver is configured. C. All SNMP notification types are sent. D. SNMPv1 is the default version. E. SNMPv3 is the default version. Answer: C,D Explanation: Default SNMP Configuration Feature Default Setting SNMP agent Enabled SNMP community strings 

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Posted on May 4, 2017

Q481. Which feature of Cisco IOS XE Software allows for platform-independent code abstraction? A. its security B. Common Management Enabling Technology C. the Linux-based environment D. its modularity Answer: D Q482. Which two statements about OSPF default route injection are true? (Choose two.) A. The ABR requires manual configuration to send a default route into an NSSA area. B. The AB

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Posted on May 3, 2017

Q291. DRAG DROP Drag and drop the OTV component on the left to the function it performs on the right. Answer: Q292. DRAG DROP Drag and drop the argument of the ip cef load-sharing algorithm command on the left to the function it performs on the right. Answer: Q293. Which three improvements does Cisco IOS XE Software offer over traditional IOS Software? (Choose three.) A. It can run appli

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Posted on May 2, 2017

Q201. Which three actions are required when configuring NAT-PT? (Choose three.) A. Enable NAT-PT globally. B. Specify an IPv4-to-IPv6 translation. C. Specify an IPv6-to-IPv4 translation. D. Specify a ::/96 prefix that will map to an IPv4 address. E. Specify a ::/48 prefix that will map to a MAC address. F. Specify a ::/32 prefix that will map to an IPv6 address. Answer: B,C,D Explanation:

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Posted on April 29, 2017

Q121. Which TCP mechanism prevents the sender from sending data too quickly for the receiver to process? A. Congestion control B. Error detection C. Selective acknowledgement D. Flow control Answer: D Explanation: In data communications, flow control is the process of managing the rate of data transmission between two nodes to prevent a fast sender from overwhelming a slow receiver. It pro

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Posted on April 29, 2017

Q61. How many address families can a single OSPFv3 instance support? A. 1 B. 2 C. 5 D. 10 Answer: A Q62. What is the maximum number of secondary IP addresses that can be configured on a router interface? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 1024 E. 65535 F. no limit to the number of addresses Answer: F Explanation: From “IP Routing Frequently Asked Questions” Q. What are the maximum number of s

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Posted on April 26, 2017

Q371. What is the purpose of Route Target Constraint? A. to avoid using route reflectors in MPLS VPN networks B. to avoid using multiple route distinguishers per VPN in MPLS VPN networks C. to be able to implement VPLS with BGP signaling D. to avoid sending unnecessary BGP VPNv4 or VPNv6 updates to the PE router E. to avoid BGP having to perform route refreshes Answer: D Explanation: Some

[Vivid] 400-101 Cisco free practice test 381-390 (Apr 2017)

Posted on April 25, 2017

Q381. Which statement about a P router in a Layer 3 MPLS VPN is true? A. It is unaware of VPN routes. B. It connects to customer edge routers. C. It participates in MPLS VPN routing. D. It uses the running IGP to share VPN routes. Answer: A Q382. Which statement about the BGP originator ID is true? A. The route reflector always sets the originator ID to its own router ID. B. The route re